Đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 có đáp án
Bộ đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10 CÓ ĐÁP ÁN là tài liệu ôn thi học kỳ 2 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 hữu ích dành cho các bạn học sinh. Luyện tập và làm quen với đề thi sẽ giúp các bạn củng cố lại những kiến thức đã học, rút kinh nghiệm trong quá trình làm bài kiểm tra tiếng Anh cuối học kì 2 đạt kết quả cao nhất. Sau đây, mời các bạn cùng tham khảo đề thi.
27 đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Bạn đang xem bài: Bộ đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Bộ đề thi giữa học kỳ 2 môn tiếng Anh lớp 10 năm học 2016 – 2017 có đáp án
Đề thi học kỳ 2 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 10
Đề 1
I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
1. A. photograph B. Stephen C. phone D. orphan
2. A. ancient B. cancel C. city D. cigarette
II. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
3. A. existence B. character C. scientist D. interesting
4. A. competitor B. participant C. volunteer D. announcer
III. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
5. How many countries took part in the first World Cup?
A. interested B. participated C. competed D. co. operated
IV. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
6. Van Mieu was a place to memorialize the most brilliant scholars of the nation.
A. honor B. keep in mind C. learn by heart D. gradually forget
V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
7. Mothers have long used folk songs to _______________ babies to sleep
A. delight B. communicate C. buzz D. lull
8. To attract film viewers, a majority of film makers now tend to expose nude ________.
A. motions B. parts C. scenes D. Events
9. Pélé is regarded _________ the greatest football player of all time
A. at B. as C. for D. with
10. Hoi An is famous ________________ its old temples and pagodas.
A. in B. for C. at D. with
11. “Would you mind helping me?” – “________.”
A. No, a problem B. Sure, no problem
C. No, I wouldn’t D. Yes, I would
12.The building in the middle of the town_______ now.
A. is being painted B. being painted C. is painting D. be painted
13. It was not until ____________________ that she cooked the meal.
A. her father would come home B. her father has come home
C. her father came home D. her father comes home
14. The Palace hotel was __________than the Grosvenor.
A. expensive B. more expensive
C. the most expensive D. the more expensive
15. ______________ do you like to live – in the city or in the countryside?
A. How B. When C. What D. Where
16. The children became………………….. about the cartoon.
A. exciting B. to excite C. excited D. excite
17. Peter has practiced playing the piano ________________ the piano contest next week.
A. in order enter B. to entering C. to enter D. not to enter
18. Everyone knows what is happening to……earth but we just do not know how to stop it.
A. an B. a C. the D. Φ
VI. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Football is the most (19)………sport in Britain, particularly amongst men. It (20)……….by boys in most schools. Most towns have an amateur football team which plays in a minor league. Football is also the most popular (21)………sport in Britain. Many people go to see their favorite professional team (22)………at home, and some go away matches. Many more people watch football (23)………..television.
19. A. important B. famous C. difficult D. popular
20. A. plays B. was played C. is played D. played
21. A spectator B. viewer C. champion D. trophy
22. A kicking B. taking C. running D. playing
23. A in B.on C. over D. at
VII. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Country music is one of the most popular kinds of music in the United States today. Maybe, country music is very popular because it is about simple but strong human feelings and events like love, sadness, good times and bad times. It tells real life stories and sounds the way people really talk. As life becomes more complicated and difficult, it is good to hear about simple ordinary people.
Country music is sometimes called country-western music. It comes from two kinds of music. One is the traditional music of the people in the Appalachian Mountains in the eastern United States. The other is traditional, cowboy music from the American West. The singers usually play guitars or electric guitars when they sing.
Country music became very popular in the South. During World War II, thousands of people from the South moved to the Northeast and the Midwest to work in factories. They took their music with them. Soldiers from the rest of the country went to army camps in the South and learned to like country music there. Slowly, it became popular all over the United States.
24. Country music is very popular because _______________________.
A. it’s about strong human feelings B. it’s about events like love, sadness
C. it tells about good times, bad times D. all are correct
25. Country music is _______________________.
A. the traditional music of the people in the eastern United States
B. considered as the cowboy music from the American West
C. sometimes called country-western music
D. from two kinds of music which haven’t been widely known
26. According to the passage, it’s untrue to say that ____________________________.
A. Country music became very popular in the South
B. Factory workers took country music with them from the South
C. Country music was brought from the South by soldiers
D. Gradually, country music became popular all over the United States
27. The best title for the passage is _______________________________.
A. Country music B. Music in the United States
C. The Formation of Country Music D. The Benefits of Country Music
28. The singers usually play _________________________ when they sing.
A. drum and violins B. guitars or electric guitars
C. the music instruments D. guitars and piano
VII. Mark the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
29. Philip wasvery an noying at Joan’s behavior.
A. was B. very C. annoying D. Joan’s behavior
30. He wouldn’t have begun to learn Russian if he knows the difficulties.
A. He B. to C. knows D. difficulties
31. It was not until last Sunday when I realized I had been wrong.
A. was B. until C. when D. had been
32. The film was most interesting than I had expected it to be.
A. The film B. most C. had expected D. to be
B. TỰ LUẬN (3.4pts):
VIII. Supply the correct form of the word given in each of the following sentences (0.2pt/ sentence):
33. The most _________________ movie of the year is “Avatar”. (EXCITE)
34. Being deaf and mute makes…………. very difficult. (COMMUNICATE)
35. She’s training very hard so as to participate in the _______________. (COMPETE)
IX. Complete the sentences with the correct form of tenses in brackets(0.2 pt/ sentence):
36. Recently, we (GIVE)……………………….a questionnaire of 100 sentences by our English teacher.
37. After she _____________ her homework, she went to bed. (DO)
38. Can you name some of the films you (SEE)________________?
X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it. (0.4pt/sentence)
39. He doesn’t have the money so he cannot afford to buy a new car
If ____________________________________________
40. I wasn’t hungry, so I didn’t feel like eating.
If I __________________________________________
41. The students studied carefully. They didn’t want to fail in the exams
In order _______________________________________
42. Our English teacher has given us five midterm tests so far.
Five midterm tests_______________________________.
43. There were about 90 to 100 people at the concert last night.
______________________________________________?
44. The swimming pool didn’t open until 10.45 a.m. yesterday.
It was__________________________________________
Đề 2
I. PHONETICS (1pt)
* Choose one word whose underlined part is pronounced differently:
1. A. erosion B. stone C. hydroelectric D. impossible
2. A. of B. often C. offer D. after
* Choose one word whose stress pattern is different:
3. A. championship B. tournament C. committee D. continent
4. A. trophy B. promote C. attract D. compete
II. Vocabulary and grammar (3pt)
A. Error recognition (0.5pt)
5. How far does it take to get to the new railway station? – 5 minutes.
A B C D
6. If I knew her phone number, I’d have phoned her to come there last night.
A B C D
B. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets (0.5pt)
7. Cuc Phuong National Park was (office) ………………………… opened in 1960.
8. The river is highly (danger) ……………………………….. for swimmers.
C. Choose A, B, C, or D that best completes each unfinished sentence (2pts)
Bản quyền bài viết thuộc Trường Trung Cấp Nghề Thương Mại Du Lịch Thanh Hoá. Mọi hành vi sao chép đều là gian lận!
Nguồn chia sẻ: https://tmdl.edu.vn/bo-de-thi-hoc-ky-2-mon-tieng-anh-lop-10/
Trang chủ: tmdl.edu.vn
Danh mục bài: Giáo dục
